Daily PIB Quiz – 28 Jul 2025

1. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the impact of the India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) on India's textile and footwear sectors?

1. CETA provides Indian textile and clothing products with duty-free access to the UK market.

2. The agreement is expected to nearly double India's leather and footwear exports to the UK within three years.

3. CETA aims to enhance global recognition for Indian artisans and manufacturers in the textile and footwear sectors.

4. The agreement simplifies customs procedures and aligns technical standards, ensuring protection of Indian Geographical Indications (GIs).

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

2. The India-UK CETA is projected to benefit various stakeholders. Which of the following groups is expected to experience the MOST significant positive impact from this agreement, according to the given information?

A. Large-scale textile conglomerates
B. UK consumers of Indian goods
C. Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India
D. Indian government revenue from import tariffs

3. What is a key objective of the India-UK CETA, as it relates to the Indian textile and footwear industries?

A. To reduce India's reliance on exports to the UK
B. To increase import tariffs on competing nations' products
C. To create a level playing field for Indian exporters against competitors
D. To decrease the overall production of leather goods in India

4. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the impact of the amended ALMM (Approved List of Models & Manufacturers) for solar PV cells in India?

1. The amendment primarily aims to ease procedures for government projects, especially those under Section 63 of the Electricity Act, 2003.

2. The mandatory use of ALMM-listed solar PV cells for projects commissioned from June 1, 2026, remains unchanged.

3. The amendment is intended to significantly accelerate the growth of India's solar cell manufacturing capacity to match the current module manufacturing capacity.

4. The amendment makes the ALMM for solar PV cells mandatory immediately upon publication of the updated list.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

5. The ALMM mechanism for solar PV modules and cells in India serves which of the following key purposes?

1. Protecting consumer interests through ensuring reliable solar energy infrastructure.

2. Promoting energy security by reducing reliance on foreign solar technology.

3. Stimulating domestic manufacturing growth in the renewable energy sector.

4. Ensuring compliance with international standards for solar energy components.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

6. Consider the following statements regarding the amendment to the ALMM for solar PV cells dated July 28, 2025:

1. The amendment specifically addresses challenges faced by renewable power developers in adhering to ALMM regulations.

2. The amendment's implementation date for making ALMM mandatory for solar PV cells is immediately upon publication of the updated ALMM list.

3. The amendment aims to provide greater clarity to bidders participating in government tenders for solar energy projects.

(4) Which statement(s) is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

7. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the kharif crop production data for 2025-26 as compared to 2024-25?

1. The area under rice cultivation has shown a significant increase.

2. Among pulses, Moong witnessed a substantial increase in sown area.

3. The area dedicated to Soybean cultivation has decreased.

4. Total kharif crop area has increased compared to the previous year.

A. 1, 2, and 4 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

8. Considering the data on kharif crops, which of the following crops exhibited a decrease in sown area in 2025-26 compared to 2024-25?

A. Rice and Maize
B. Soybean and Cotton
C. Tur and Ragi
D. Moong and Bajra

9. The data reveals that the total area under kharif crops increased from 797.91 lakh hectares in 2024-25 to 829.64 lakh hectares in 2025-26. What is a potential policy implication of this increase, considering the context of Indian agriculture?

A. Increased food security and reduced import dependence
B. Increased pressure on water resources and potential environmental concerns
C. Improved farmer incomes and reduced rural poverty
D. All of the above

10. Which of the following statements regarding the recent FIDE Women's World Chess Championship are correct?

1. Divya Deshmukh won the championship.

2. Koneru Humpy was also a prominent participant.

3. The final was contested between two Indian players.

4. The Prime Minister of India congratulated the winner.

A. 1 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

11. Divya Deshmukh's achievement in the FIDE Women's World Chess Championship is significant because:

1. It showcases India's growing prowess in the sport.

2. It is likely to inspire a new generation of chess players in India.

3. It highlights the competitiveness of Indian women in international chess.

4. It represents a major victory for the Indian sports community.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

12. The Prime Minister's congratulatory message highlights which aspect of the FIDE Women's World Chess Championship final?

A. The unexpected nature of the victory
B. The close and competitive nature of the match
C. The historic significance of an all-Indian final
D. The individual talent of the winner alone

13. The Technology Sub-Mission (TSM) under PMAY-U focuses on which of the following objectives?

1. Promoting the use of eco-friendly building materials.

2. Accelerating the construction of affordable houses.

3. Developing new urban planning regulations.

4. Ensuring houses are resistant to natural disasters.

A. 1, 2, and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only

14. Consider the following statements about the Light House Projects (LHPs) under PMAY-U:

1. The total project cost for all six LHPs exceeded ₹1000 crore.

2. The selection of LHP sites involved a competitive process.

3. The primary goal of the LHPs was to provide housing in hilly states and union territories.

4. Prefabricated technology was one of the technologies showcased in the LHPs.

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 2, 3, and 4 only

15. Which of the following statements correctly describes the interplay between the One District, One Product (ODOP) and Districts as Export Hubs (DEH) initiatives?

1. ODOP is a sub-component of the DEH initiative, focusing solely on product selection and branding.

2. DEH is a broader initiative that incorporates ODOP to streamline export promotion at the district level.

3. Both initiatives operate independently, targeting different aspects of regional development.

4. DEH replaced ODOP as the primary export promotion scheme.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 4 only

16. The government's support for MSMEs in international trade involves which of the following?

1. Financial incentives for capacity building and enterprise creation.

2. Participation facilitation in international trade fairs and events.

3. Market intelligence provision and cost reimbursements for exports.

4. Exclusive focus on large-scale industries for export promotion.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 4 only

17. Consider the following statements about government schemes aimed at boosting MSMEs:

1. The International Cooperation Scheme primarily focuses on providing digital marketing training to MSMEs.

2. Schemes like PMEGP and CGTMSE offer financial incentives and credit guarantees to MSMEs.

3. The MSME TEAM scheme is solely concerned with procurement and marketing support, excluding capacity building.

4. Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana and Coir Vikas Yojana are unrelated to MSME development.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of the above

18. Which of the following statements regarding government initiatives to boost MSME competitiveness and exports are correct?

1. The TEAM scheme aims to onboard 5 lakh MSEs onto the ONDC network, with a target of at least 50% women-owned enterprises.

2. NSIC's e-Country Pavilion facilitates international trade partnerships for Indian MSMEs through a virtual platform.

3. The Trade Connect e-Platform is designed exclusively for new exporters seeking international market access.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

19. The government's focus on empowering women-owned MSMEs is evident in which initiative(s)?

A. TEAM scheme only
B. NSIC's e-Country Pavilion only
C. Both TEAM scheme and NSIC's e-Country Pavilion
D. Neither of the mentioned initiatives

20. Which of the following statements regarding the New Digital Credit Assessment Model for MSMEs are correct?

1. The model eliminates the need for any physical documentation from MSMEs.

2. The model uses digital footprints such as GST data and bank statements for credit assessment.

3. The model fundamentally alters the eligibility criteria for MSME loans.

4. The model aims to reduce the turnaround time for loan approvals.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

21. The New Digital Credit Assessment Model for MSMEs primarily aims to achieve which of the following?

A. Increase the loan amount offered to MSMEs
B. Reduce reliance on external credit rating agencies
C. Simplify the MSME loan application process
D. Enhance the financial literacy of MSME owners

22. Consider the following statements about the digital footprints used in the New Digital Credit Assessment Model for MSMEs:

1. It includes data verification through the National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL).

2. It relies solely on publicly available data sources.

3. It incorporates fraud checks through Application Programming Interfaces (APIs).

(4) Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

23. Which of the following statements regarding the growth of digital payments in India are correct?

1. The RBI's Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) has facilitated the deployment of over 4.77 crore digital touchpoints by May 31, 2025.

2. The RBI Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) for September 2024 indicates a decline in digital payment adoption compared to the base period of March 2018.

3. Initiatives like the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) have been implemented to support MSMEs in adopting digital payment systems.

4. The increase in digital transactions has had a negligible impact on access to formal credit for underserved communities.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 only

24. The RBI Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) is primarily designed to:

(2) a) Monitor the financial health of banks and financial institutions.

(3) b) Measure the extent of digital payment adoption and infrastructure across India.

(4) c) Regulate the fees charged by digital payment providers.

(5) d) Track the volume of international remittances through digital channels.

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

25. Which of the following government initiatives directly aims at promoting digital payments among small merchants and businesses?

(2) a) Rationalization of Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) for credit card transactions.

(3) b) Incentive schemes for low-value BHIM-UPI transactions.

(4) c) Establishment of the Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) for large corporations.

(5) d) Development of the Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI).

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

26. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the measures undertaken to enhance the resilience of India's power distribution network, particularly in coastal areas?

1. The Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS) has allocated funds for disaster-resilient infrastructure in coastal states.

2. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has issued regulations promoting the use of underground cables and emergency restoration systems in coastal regions.

3. A task force report on cyclone-resilient infrastructure has recommended specific design parameters for power systems in cyclone-prone coastal areas.

4. Smart metering initiatives under RDSS aim to improve grid efficiency and reduce transmission losses, thereby indirectly enhancing resilience.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

27. The Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS) aims to improve the operational efficiency and financial viability of distribution utilities. Which of the following is NOT a direct objective of the RDSS as described in the provided context?

A. Improving the resilience of the power distribution network against natural disasters
B. Modernizing distribution infrastructure through investments in substations and underground cabling
C. Implementing smart metering systems to enhance efficiency and reduce losses
D. Privatizing distribution utilities to improve their financial performance

28. Considering the Electricity Act of 2003 and subsequent initiatives like RDSS, which statement best encapsulates the government's approach to power distribution in India?

A. Deregulation of the power sector to encourage private investment and competition
B. Centralized control over power distribution to ensure uniform standards and equitable access
C. A mixed approach combining regulatory oversight with financial support for distribution utilities to improve efficiency and reliability
D. Complete reliance on market forces to determine the efficiency and pricing of power distribution

29. Which of the following statements regarding hydro pumped storage projects (PSPs) in India is/are correct?

1. The Indian government has implemented various initiatives to encourage the development of PSPs.

2. As of June 30, 2025, a specific number of PSPs were operational or under development in India (the exact number is not provided in this context).

3. Information on the status of PSPs was provided by the Minister of State for Power in the Rajya Sabha.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. None of the above

30. What is a significant policy implication of the Indian government's initiatives to promote hydro pumped storage projects (PSPs)?

A. Increased reliance on non-renewable energy sources
B. Reduced energy storage capacity
C. Improved grid stability and energy security
D. Decreased investment in renewable energy

31. Which of the following statements regarding the rehabilitation of bonded labourers in India are correct?

1. The primary responsibility for the identification, release, and rehabilitation of bonded labourers rests with the State/Union Territory governments.

2. The Central Sector Scheme for Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourer-2021 is a demand-driven scheme, with funds allocated to States/UTs based on their proposals.

3. Executive Magistrates are empowered to act as Judicial Magistrates for trying offenses related to bonded labour.

4. Vigilance Committees at the district and sub-divisional levels are constituted to assist in the rehabilitation process.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

32. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, designates specific roles and responsibilities. Which of the following is NOT a direct responsibility under this Act?

A. Rehabilitation of freed bonded laborers
B. Identification of bonded laborers
C. Release of bonded laborers
D. Providing financial aid to rescued laborers

33. The Central Sector Scheme for Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourers aims to improve which of the following aspects related to bonded labour?

A. The speed of identifying bonded labourers
B. The conviction rate in bonded labour cases
C. The quality of rehabilitation programs
D. All of the above

34. Which of the following statements regarding the eShram portal are correct?

1. It is a national database of unorganized workers seeded with Aadhaar.

2. It provides unorganized workers with a Universal Account Number (UAN) based on self-declaration.

3. The portal's "One-Stop-Solution" integrates over 20 social security and welfare schemes.

4. The portal's integration includes schemes related to housing, healthcare, and rural employment.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

35. The eShram portal's "One-Stop-Solution" initiative primarily aims to:

A. Digitize all government services related to employment.
B. Consolidate various social security schemes for unorganized workers.
C. Create a centralized platform for skill development programs.
D. Improve the efficiency of labor market regulations.

36. Which of the following statements regarding the Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) is/are correct?

1. ESIC covers employees in factories/establishments with 10 or more employees in all districts across India.

2. The wage ceiling for coverage under the ESI Act was last revised on January 1, 2017.

3. Persons with disabilities have a higher wage ceiling for ESIC coverage than other employees.

4. ESIC benefits are available only to employees and not their family members.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 2 only

37. Based on the provided data, which state has the highest number of ESI hospitals, considering both those run by the ESI Corporation and State Governments?

A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. West Bengal
D. Gujarat

38. Which of the following statements accurately reflect the initiatives undertaken by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) to enhance skill development and entrepreneurship in India?

1. The MSDE utilizes the Skill India Mission to deliver skill, re-skill, and up-skill training through various schemes such as PMKVY and NAPS.

2. The National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET) has been established to regulate and standardize Technical and Vocational Education and Training (TVET).

3. Sector Skill Councils (SSCs) have been set up to align skill development needs with industry demands and establish skill competency standards.

4. The MSDE has launched the Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH) to integrate skilling, education, employment, and entrepreneurship ecosystems.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

39. The Skill India Mission, implemented by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), aims to achieve which of the following objectives?

1. To provide industry-relevant skills to Indian youth, preparing them for future employment.

2. To establish a unified platform integrating skilling, education, employment, and entrepreneurship.

3. To collaborate with international organizations to offer digital courses and enhance skill development.

4. To exclusively focus on the development of traditional crafts and industries.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 4 only

40. Which of the following programs or initiatives is NOT directly associated with the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE)'s efforts to promote entrepreneurship?

A. Swavalambini – Women Entrepreneurship Programme
B. National Apprenticeship Melas (PMNAMs)
C. Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS)
D. Entrepreneurship Awareness Programme (EAP)