Daily PIB Quiz – 24 Jul 2025

1. Which of the following statements correctly reflect the goals and objectives of the National Cooperation Policy – 2025?

1. To triple the cooperative sector's contribution to India's GDP by 2034.

2. To establish at least one cooperative unit in every village.

3. To increase the number of cooperative societies by 30%.

4. To prioritize the development of urban cooperative societies.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

2. The National Cooperation Policy – 2025 emphasizes a multi-pronged approach. Which of the following are key pillars of this policy?

1. Strengthening the foundation of existing cooperatives.

2. Promoting financial inclusion through microfinance institutions.

3. Preparing cooperatives for technological advancements.

4. Expanding into new sectors such as tourism and green energy.

A. 1, 3, and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

3. The National Cooperation Policy 2025 was formulated after extensive consultations. Which of the following groups were NOT directly involved in the policy's drafting process?

1. Cooperative leaders

2. Representatives from the Ministry of Finance

3. Academic experts

4. Representatives from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

A. 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. None of the above

4. The India-UK FTA is described as 'people-centric trade diplomacy'. What policy objective best reflects this description?

A. Prioritizing the interests of large corporations in trade negotiations.
B. Focusing solely on maximizing export volumes without regard for domestic impacts.
C. Balancing economic gains with social and environmental considerations.
D. Seeking the most favorable terms for the government regardless of citizen benefits.

5. Which of the following statements regarding the National Expert Committee on Herb Safety Dossiers is/are correct?

1. The committee's mandate includes ensuring that Ayush interventions meet global safety and quality standards.

2. The committee reviewed scientific, pharmacological, and traditional data to refine safety documentation for selected herbs.

3. The committee comprised experts solely from the All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA).

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1 only

6. The Ministry of Ayush's initiative to create safety dossiers for Ayurvedic herbs is primarily aimed at:

A. Promoting the export of Ayurvedic medicines without any regard for safety standards.
B. Increasing domestic consumption of Ayurvedic medicines regardless of scientific evidence.
C. Enhancing public confidence and international recognition of Indian traditional medicines by ensuring they meet global safety and quality standards.
D. Replacing modern medicine with traditional medicine systems.

7. Which of the following herbs were included in the safety dossiers prepared by the National Expert Committee?

1. Gokshura (Tribulus terrestris)

2. Tulsi (Ocimum sanctum)

3. Ashwagandha (Withania somnifera)

4. Haridra (Curcuma longa)

A. 1, 2, and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only

8. The concept of 'Environmental Flow' (e-flow) is crucial for maintaining the health of river ecosystems. Which of the following are considered key aspects of e-flow?

1. The quantity of water flow.

2. The timing of water releases.

3. The quality of water.

4. The construction of large dams to regulate water flow.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 4 only

9. The Union Jal Shakti Minister's initiative on e-flow in the Ganga basin reflects a broader approach to water resource management. This approach can best be described as:

A. Centralized and top-down, prioritizing government control.
B. Reactive and crisis-driven, addressing immediate pollution concerns.
C. Inclusive and scientific, emphasizing stakeholder participation and ecological balance.
D. Primarily economic, focused on maximizing water use for industrial purposes.

10. The establishment of the Centre of Excellence on PESA is primarily intended to achieve which of the following objectives?

A. Promote tourism in tribal areas by showcasing their culture and traditions.
B. Centralize the administration of PESA-related funds and projects.
C. Empower tribal communities through capacity building, research, and advocacy.
D. Replace existing local governance structures in Scheduled Areas with a more centralized model.

11. Consider the following statements about the PESA Act and the new Centre of Excellence:

1. The PESA Act mandates the establishment of such Centres of Excellence in all states.

2. The Centre will facilitate the documentation and promotion of tribal knowledge and practices.

3. The Centre's work aligns with the objective of achieving Localized Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs).

(4) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. None

12. Which of the following statements regarding the Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) scheme is/are correct?

1. PM VIKAS is a Central Sector Scheme that subsumes five pre-existing schemes aimed at the upliftment of six notified minority communities.

2. The scheme's components include skilling, women's entrepreneurship, education via the National Institute of Open Schooling, and infrastructure development.

3. A two-tiered committee system, involving a Screening Committee and an Empowered Committee, oversees proposal evaluation and approval.

4. The scheme explicitly excludes credit linkage facilities for beneficiaries.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1 only

13. The PM VIKAS scheme's emphasis on 'timely implementation and a robust monitoring mechanism' primarily addresses which of the following challenges often associated with government schemes?

(2) a) Corruption and embezzlement of funds

(3) b) Lack of coordination among implementing agencies

(4) c) Inefficient use of resources and lack of accountability

(5) d) Inadequate beneficiary participation and feedback

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

14. Which one of the following best describes the significance of converging five erstwhile schemes under the PM VIKAS umbrella?

(2) a) Streamlining minority welfare initiatives by reducing bureaucratic redundancy.

(3) b) Expanding the scope of minority welfare programs by adding entirely new initiatives.

(4) c) Increasing the budget allocation for minority welfare programs without changing their scope.

(5) d) Consolidating minority welfare programs under a single ministry without enhancing efficiency.

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

15. The Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision (MAKV) 2047 is central to India's maritime strategy. Which of the following is NOT a key element of this vision?

1. Strengthening shipbuilding capabilities

2. Enhancing port infrastructure development

3. Prioritizing solely private sector investments in the maritime sector

4. Improving financial resilience of the maritime sector

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

16. India's push for a self-reliant renewable energy sector is evidenced by which of the following government actions?

1. The launch of a Viability Gap Funding (VGF) scheme for Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS).

2. The implementation of the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for solar and wind manufacturing.

3. Expansion of the Approved List of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM) for solar PV cells.

4. The promotion of innovative land use practices such as floating solar and canal-top solar.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

17. Which of the following statements correctly describes the collaboration between the Department of Posts (DoP) and NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL)?

1. The collaboration aims to improve inward remittances to India using the UPI and UPU Interconnection Platform.

2. The partnership seeks to modernize cross-border payment systems and promote financial inclusion.

3. The initiative will replace traditional remittance methods entirely.

4. The primary goal is to reduce costs for senders while maintaining high transaction fees for beneficiaries.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 only
D. 2 and 4 only

18. The Department of Post's collaboration with NIPL leverages which key technological and international infrastructure components?

1. Unified Payments Interface (UPI)

2. Universal Postal Union (UPU) Interconnection Platform

3. SWIFT Network

4. Blockchain Technology

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only

19. What is a significant policy objective underlying the Department of Post's and NIPL's joint initiative on inward remittances?

1. Promoting financial inclusion among the Indian diaspora

2. Reducing the reliance on informal remittance channels

3. Increasing the profitability of the Department of Posts

4. Enhancing the global competitiveness of Indian financial institutions

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 4 only

20. The India-UK CETA is likely to have which of the following impacts?

1. Increased bilateral trade and investment between India and the UK.

2. Enhanced economic growth in both countries.

3. Improved business sentiment globally.

4. Reduced employment opportunities in the participating sectors.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

21. Which of the following statements regarding Community Radio Stations (CRS) in India are correct?

1. CRSs are a third tier in radio broadcasting, distinct from Public Service Broadcasting and Commercial Radio.

2. The 'Supporting Community Radio Movement in India' scheme has an outlay of Rs. 100 crore.

3. CRS licenses are granted to for-profit organizations with a minimum of two years of community service.

4. CRSs have a maximum Effective Radiated Power (ERP) of 200 Watts.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. None

22. The government's 'Supporting Community Radio Movement in India' scheme aims to achieve which of the following objectives?

1. Increase awareness of the scheme and encourage more applications.

2. Provide financial assistance exclusively to new CRSs.

3. Enhance the capacity of existing CRSs through technology and resources.

4. Restrict CRS programming to pre-approved topics to ensure uniformity.

A. 1, 3, and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 only

23. What is a key characteristic of Community Radio Stations (CRSs) that distinguishes them from mainstream media?

A. They are primarily funded through government advertising revenue.
B. Their programming is centrally controlled by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
C. They empower marginalized communities by amplifying their voices and concerns.
D. They operate with a very high Effective Radiated Power (ERP), exceeding 1000 Watts.

24. Which of the following statements regarding TRAI's Independent Drive Tests (IDT) in Hisar, Haryana are correct?

1. The IDTs assessed Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for both voice and data services across various network technologies.

2. The tests covered a total distance of over 244 kilometers, including both city and walk tests.

3. Data from all telecom operators, using SIM cards across 2G, 3G, 4G, and 5G networks, were collected during the tests.

4. The primary objective was to evaluate network performance in rural areas to bridge the digital divide.

A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4

25. TRAI's Independent Drive Tests (IDTs) utilize a methodology that involves which of the following?

1. Real-time monitoring and analysis of live data and voice sessions.

2. The use of multiple advanced test handsets.

3. Analysis of collected data by experts using specialized tools.

4. Exclusively focusing on 5G network performance to assess future readiness.

A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3, and 4
D. 1 only

26. Based on the provided data, which telecom operator demonstrated the highest average download speed during TRAI's IDT in Hisar?

1. Airtel

2. BSNL

3. Reliance Jio (RJIL)

4. Vodafone Idea (VIL)

A. Airtel
B. BSNL
C. Reliance Jio (RJIL)
D. Vodafone Idea (VIL)

27. Which of the following statements regarding the Employees' Pension Scheme (EPS), 1995, are correct?

1. The scheme is a Defined Contribution-Defined Benefit social security plan.

2. The EPS corpus includes employer contributions and Central Government budgetary support.

3. As per the 2019 valuation, the fund has a surplus.

4. The minimum pension amount has remained unchanged at Rs. 1000 per month.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1 only

28. The Employees' Pension Scheme (EPS), 1995, faces which of the following challenges?

A. Inadequate funding from employers
B. Actuarial deficit requiring government subsidies
C. Lack of transparency in fund management
D. High administrative costs

29. Which of the following statements regarding India's employment and unemployment trends is/are correct based on the provided data?

1. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is the official source for employment and unemployment data in India.

2. The unemployment rate has shown a consistent downward trend from 2020-21 to 2023-24.

3. The KLEMS database indicates a significant increase in overall employment between 2017-18 and 2023-24.

4. The female worker population ratio has remained stagnant during the period 2019-20 to 2023-24.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

30. The KLEMS database, published by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), provides insights into which aspects of the Indian economy?

A. Inflation and monetary policy
B. Foreign exchange reserves and capital flows
C. Employment across various sectors, including manufacturing
D. Fiscal deficit and government spending

31. Based on the given data, what is the most significant trend observed in India's employment scenario from 2020-21 to 2023-24?

A. Stagnant employment rates despite economic growth
B. A sharp decline in the female workforce participation rate
C. A consistent rise in the worker population ratio and a fall in the unemployment rate
D. A significant increase in unemployment across all sectors

32. Which of the following statements regarding the National Career Service (NCS) portal are correct?

1. The NCS portal is an online platform providing a range of career services, including job postings, skill development information, and career counseling.

2. As of a recent date, the portal recorded over 48 lakh active employers and more than 40 lakh active vacancies.

3. During the financial year 2024-25, the portal witnessed a significant increase in new registrations, surpassing 1.45 crore new jobseekers.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only

33. The National Career Service (NCS) portal's primary objective is to:

A. Facilitate skill development programs exclusively for the government sector.
B. Create a centralized platform for job seekers and employers across sectors.
C. Provide career counseling solely to unemployed youth.
D. Maintain a database of skilled professionals for government recruitment.

34. Based on the provided data, which of the following states/UTs reported the highest number of active vacancies on the NCS portal?

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Maharashtra

3. West Bengal

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

35. Which of the following statements regarding the implementation of the four Labour Codes in India is/are correct?

1. The power to make rules under the Labour Codes is vested with both the Central and State Governments.

2. All states and union territories have pre-published draft rules under all four Labour Codes.

3. The Code on Social Security, 2020, extends benefits to gig and platform workers.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

36. Consider the following statements about the status of the implementation of the four Labour Codes across Indian states and union territories:

1. West Bengal and Lakshadweep are the only states/UTs that have not pre-published draft rules under any of the four Labour Codes.

2. Delhi has pre-published draft rules only under the Code on Wages, 2019.

3. Tamil Nadu has not pre-published draft rules under the Code on Social Security, 2020.

(4) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 3 only

37. The four Labour Codes in India aim to strengthen worker protection. Which of the following is NOT a key area of focus under these codes?

A. Statutory minimum wage and timely payment
B. Social security benefits for all workers, including those in the unorganized sector
C. Enhancing the power of employers to reduce worker compensation
D. Occupational safety and healthcare for workers