Daily PIB Quiz – 18 Aug 2025

1. The “Tourism Avenues” conference highlighted the potential of river cruise tourism in India. Which of the following are key aspects of this potential?

1. Boosting local economies.

2. Creating new employment opportunities for stakeholders.

3. Promoting sustainable tourism practices.

4. Developing advanced cruise ship technology.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above

2. The Next-Generation Reforms initiative primarily focuses on which of the following aspects of governance and economic development?

A. Strengthening national security and defense capabilities
B. Improving infrastructure and transportation networks
C. Promoting ease of living, ease of doing business, and inclusive growth
D. Enhancing social justice and reducing income inequality

3. Which of the following statements regarding the incident at Bhuni Toll Plaza on the Meerut-Karnal section of NH-709A are correct?

1. The incident involved a physical altercation between army personnel and toll staff.

2. NHAI imposed a penalty of Rs. 20 lakhs on the toll collecting agency.

3. The toll collecting agency was debarred from future bids permanently.

4. The local police registered an FIR and made arrests.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

4. The incident at Bhuni Toll Plaza highlights which of the following key concerns related to the management of National Highways?

1. Ensuring effective grievance redressal mechanisms for highway users.

2. Maintaining appropriate conduct and training of toll plaza staff.

3. Upholding contractual obligations by private toll operators.

4. Coordination between NHAI and local law enforcement agencies.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 1 and 4 only

5. What was the primary action taken by NHAI in response to the misbehavior of toll staff at Bhuni Toll Plaza?

A. Initiation of criminal proceedings against the toll staff
B. Issuing a strong warning to the toll collecting agency
C. Imposing a monetary penalty and initiating debarment proceedings
D. Transferring the management of the toll plaza to another agency

6. The FASTag Annual Pass initiative primarily aims to:

A. Reduce traffic congestion on national highways.
B. Promote cashless transactions on toll plazas.
C. Provide a cost-effective and convenient tolling system for commuters.
D. Increase the revenue generated from toll plazas.

7. The interaction between Prime Minister Modi and Shubhanshu Shukla highlights which of the following aspects of India’s current trajectory?

A. Emphasis on space exploration as a symbol of national pride
B. Increased focus on international collaborations in space research
C. A shift away from traditional scientific fields towards space technology
D. Neglect of other scientific sectors in favor of space exploration

8. Consider the following statements about India’s space program and the Gaganyaan mission:

1. The Gaganyaan mission is a solely government-funded initiative.

2. The Gaganyaan mission aims to demonstrate India’s capability for human spaceflight.

3. The Gaganyaan mission is entirely dependent on foreign technology.

4. The success of the Gaganyaan mission will significantly boost India’s prestige in the global space arena.

(5) Which of the statements are correct?

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2, 3, and 4

9. Based on the provided data, which kharif crop experienced the most substantial increase in area coverage from 2024-25 to 2025-26?

A. Rice
B. Maize
C. Sugarcane
D. Cotton

10. Considering the data on kharif crops, which of the following inferences can be drawn regarding agricultural policy and its impact?

A. Government policies have been entirely successful in boosting kharif crop production.
B. There is a need for a more nuanced approach to agricultural policy, considering the varied responses of different crops.
C. The data conclusively proves the failure of government agricultural initiatives.
D. No conclusive inference can be drawn from the limited data provided.

11. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the impact and provisions of the Indian Ports Bill, 2025?

1. It replaces the Indian Ports Act of 1908, a colonial-era legislation.

2. It establishes a Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) for Centre-State coordination on port development.

3. It mandates compliance with international environmental regulations like MARPOL.

4. It aims to boost India’s global maritime leadership by 2047.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

12. The Indian Ports Bill, 2025, is significant because it:

1. Seeks to enhance trade competitiveness and attract private investment.

2. Introduces a Maritime Single Window system for increased efficiency.

3. Addresses the long-standing need for a modern framework to replace outdated legislation.

4. Aims to create employment opportunities in the maritime sector.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

13. The National Youth Parliament Scheme (NYPS) primarily seeks to achieve which of the following objectives?

A. To promote rote learning of constitutional provisions among students.
B. To create a platform for political campaigning by young adults.
C. To cultivate democratic values and understanding of parliamentary processes among young citizens.
D. To restrict participation to students from urban areas and elite institutions.

14. Consider the following statements regarding participation in the National Youth Parliament Scheme (NYPS):

1. Participation is limited to students from specific schools and colleges.

2. The scheme offers both online and offline participation modes.

3. A significant number of participants have come from rural areas through the online portal.

4. Only individual participation is allowed; group participation is prohibited.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 2, 3, and 4 only

15. Which of the following statements correctly describes aspects of the Khelo Bharat Niti-2025?

1. It proposes a significant financial assistance program for State/UT governments.

2. The policy aims to integrate sports with education, aligning with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.

3. A key objective is to enhance India’s global standing in sports through infrastructure development and talent identification.

4. The initiative focuses solely on elite-level sports development, neglecting grassroots participation.

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 2 only

16. The Khelo Bharat Niti-2025 adopts a multi-pronged approach to sports development. Which of the following is NOT a core pillar of this policy?

A. Promoting sports as a vehicle for economic growth and diversification
B. Prioritizing the development of elite athletes while neglecting grassroots participation
C. Fostering social inclusion and community engagement through sports
D. Establishing a robust talent identification and development system

17. Consider the following statements about the implementation of the Khelo Bharat Niti-2025:

1. It mandates a centralized, top-down approach to sports administration.

2. It emphasizes equitable access to sports infrastructure across various geographical and socioeconomic sections.

3. Private organizations are excluded from participating in talent identification and development initiatives.

4. It aims to create a streamlined national platform for talent identification, development, and monitoring.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 4 only

18. Which of the following statements regarding the Government of India’s (GoI) sale of government securities is/are correct?

1. The GoI is re-issuing “5.91% Government Security 2028” and “6.33% Government Security 2035”.

2. The auctions will be conducted through a price-based auction using a multiple-price method.

3. Up to 5% of the notified amount will be allotted through a non-competitive bidding facility.

4. The Reserve Bank of India will conduct the auctions in Delhi.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

19. The Government of India’s recent auction of government securities involved which of the following features?

A. A single-price auction method
B. An online bidding system using the E-Kuber platform
C. Allocation exclusively to institutional investors
D. No provision for non-competitive bidding

20. Consider the following statements about the ‘When Issued’ trading of government securities:

1. It is a trading mechanism facilitated by the Reserve Bank of India.

2. It allows trading of securities before their official issuance.

3. It is governed by a circular issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

21. Which of the following statements regarding the Indian government’s initiatives for employment and social security are correct?

1. The National Career Service (NCS) portal offers a range of career services, including job information and skill development resources.

2. The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) scheme provides a monthly pension of ₹3000 to all workers in the unorganized sector upon reaching age 60.

3. India’s Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) framework, developed in 2021, incorporates indicators from the global MPI and adds some nationally relevant ones.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 only
D. 3 only

22. The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) scheme is designed to address which of the following key challenges?

A. Unemployment among skilled workers
B. Lack of healthcare access for senior citizens
C. Inadequate social security for the unorganized sector
D. Skill development gaps in the rural workforce

23. India’s Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) differs from the global MPI in that it:

A. Uses a completely different set of indicators
B. Focuses solely on economic deprivation
C. Includes additional indicators relevant to India’s context
D. Does not consider health as a dimension of poverty

24. The incident involving corporal punishment highlights which of the following key concerns?

A. Inadequate teacher training and professional development
II. Lack of effective mechanisms to address child abuse in schools
III. Systemic issues related to the enforcement of child rights in government schools
B. I only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III

25. In the context of child rights, what is the significance of the NHRC’s action in this case?

A. It underscores the NHRC’s limited role in addressing child abuse within educational institutions.
B. It demonstrates the NHRC’s proactive approach to addressing human rights violations against children.
C. It highlights the ineffectiveness of the existing legal framework for protecting children’s rights.
D. It shows the NHRC’s reliance on media reports as the sole basis for action.

26. Which statements accurately reflect India’s foreign policy stance as indicated in the provided context?

A. India prioritizes a peaceful, diplomatic resolution of international conflicts.
B. India consistently advocates for dialogue as a primary conflict-resolution tool.
C. India’s support for conflict resolution is contingent on specific geopolitical circumstances.
D. India’s approach to international conflicts is primarily determined by its bilateral relations with involved nations.

27. The telephone conversation between Prime Minister Modi and President Putin primarily focused on which of the following?

A. Strengthening bilateral trade agreements between India and Russia.
B. Addressing specific concerns regarding regional security issues in South Asia.
C. Reviewing the progress of ongoing joint military exercises between the two nations.
D. Discussing the conflict resolution and furthering the India-Russia strategic partnership.

28. Considering the context, which aspect of India’s foreign policy is most clearly emphasized?

A. Its commitment to non-alignment in international disputes.
B. Its preference for multilateral approaches to international relations.
C. Its commitment to peaceful and diplomatic solutions to international conflicts.
D. Its focus on strengthening bilateral relations with major global powers.

29. Which of the following statements regarding the development of tourism infrastructure in India are correct?

1. State Governments/UT Administrations are primarily responsible for developing tourism infrastructure, including in tribal and hilly areas.

2. Central schemes like Swadesh Darshan and PRASHAD provide financial assistance to states for tourism infrastructure development.

3. The development of tourist material and signage in local languages is the sole responsibility of the central government.

4. The “Development of Tribal Homestays” initiative explicitly mandates adherence to the Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only

30. The “Development of Tribal Homestays” initiative aims to achieve which of the following objectives?

A. Promote tourism in tribal areas and provide alternative livelihoods for tribal communities
B. Primarily focus on constructing new hotels in tribal areas to boost tourism revenue
C. Restrict tourism in tribal areas to protect their traditional way of life
D. Develop luxury resorts in tribal areas to attract high-end tourists

31. Consider the following statements about funding under the “Development of Tribal Homestays” initiative:

1. Up to Rs. 5 lakh can be provided for village community needs.

2. Each household can receive up to Rs. 5 lakh for constructing two new rooms.

3. A maximum of Rs. 3 lakh is available for renovating existing rooms in each household.

(4) Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 2 and 3 only

32. Which of the following statements regarding the DRI’s ‘Operation Crystal Break’ are correct?

1. The operation resulted in the seizure of a significant quantity of Mephedrone and raw materials used in its production.

2. The operation involved coordinated efforts across multiple states in India.

3. The investigation revealed the involvement of an overseas operator in the Mephedrone syndicate.

4. All those arrested were directly involved in the manufacturing process at the Bhopal facility.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

33. Mephedrone, a substance seized in ‘Operation Crystal Break’, is categorized under which legislation and why is it considered a significant threat?

A. The Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, due to its impact on endangered species
B. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985, due to its high potential for addiction and abuse
C. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, due to its involvement in illicit financial transactions
D. The Essential Commodities Act, 1955, due to its impact on public health

34. Considering the context of ‘Operation Crystal Break’, which of the following agencies played a crucial role in the operation?

1. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI)

2. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

3. State Police forces of Maharashtra and Gujarat

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

35. Which of the following statements correctly reflects trends in India’s tourism sector based on the provided data?

1. Foreign tourist arrivals (FTAs) have consistently increased from 2020 to 2024.

2. Foreign exchange earnings (FEEs) from tourism showed a significant rise after 2021.

3. The tourism sector’s contribution to India’s GDP has remained relatively stable over the period.

4. Employment in the tourism sector has steadily increased over the given period.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 2, 3, and 4 only

36. The data reveals a significant surge in foreign tourist arrivals in India. What is a plausible reason for this increase, considering broader economic and geopolitical factors?

A. Increased global economic stability and reduced travel restrictions
B. India’s improved infrastructure and promotion of tourism
C. A decline in tourism in competing destinations due to global events
D. A combination of improved infrastructure, marketing, and global shifts in travel patterns

37. Based on the provided data, which of the following statements regarding the relationship between foreign tourist arrivals (FTAs) and foreign exchange earnings (FEEs) from tourism in India is most accurate?

A. There is a direct and proportional relationship between FTAs and FEEs.
B. A rise in FTAs always leads to a similar percentage increase in FEEs.
C. The relationship between FTAs and FEEs is complex and influenced by multiple factors.
D. FEEs are solely determined by the number of FTAs, irrespective of other economic indicators.

38. Which of the following statements regarding the Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (SAUBHAGYA) scheme are correct?

1. SAUBHAGYA aimed to provide electricity connections to all willing un-electrified households in rural areas and poor households in urban areas.

2. The scheme was launched in 2017 and successfully completed all sanctioned works by March 2022.

3. Over 2.86 crore households were electrified under SAUBHAGYA, with funding provided to all states uniformly.

4. The Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS) has superseded SAUBHAGYA as the primary scheme for rural electrification.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4

39. The government’s approach to rural electrification has involved multiple schemes. Which of the following correctly pairs a scheme with its primary focus?

1. SAUBHAGYA – Electrification of all willing households in rural and urban areas

2. RDSS – Primarily focused on off-grid solar-based electrification

3. PM-JANMAN – Targeted electrification of PVTG households

4. New Solar Power Scheme – Supporting on-grid electrification of left-out households

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1 and 4 only

40. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the recent initiatives undertaken by the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) to improve healthcare access for its beneficiaries?

1. ESIC has collaborated with Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY to provide secondary and tertiary care in areas with inadequate ESI facilities.

2. ESIC has upgraded its OPD appointment app to enhance patient convenience and reduce waiting times.

3. ESIC has introduced an online portal for streamlined submission of cash benefit claims.

4. ESIC has implemented a mandatory Aadhaar-based authentication system for all beneficiaries to access social security benefits.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 3 only

41. The Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) has introduced several schemes to improve its services. Which of the following is NOT a direct aim of these recent ESIC schemes?

A. Expanding healthcare access to underserved areas
B. Reducing litigation and improving compliance with the ESI Act
C. Increasing the number of registered employers and employees
D. Privatizing tertiary care medical services

42. Consider the following statements about recent ESIC initiatives:

1. The ‘Scheme for Promotion of Registration of Employers and Employees (SPREE)’ aims to enhance the coverage of unregistered employers and employees.

2. The ‘Amnesty Scheme 2025’ provides a one-time opportunity for resolving disputes under the ESI Act, 1948.

(3) Which statement(s) is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2