Daily PIB Quiz – 15 Jul 2025

1. With reference to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2021-2022, consider the following statements:

(1) The total student enrolment has decreased compared to 2014-2015.

(2) Female enrolment has shown a significant increase since 2014-2015.

(3) Uttar Pradesh has the highest student enrolment, followed by Maharashtra.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

2. Consider the following statements regarding Higher Education in India:

(1) The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) for higher education in India is calculated for the 18-23 age group.

(2) The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 aims to increase the GER to 50% by 2030.

(3) Distance enrolment constitutes a significant portion of the total enrolment in higher education.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

3. Which of the following states has shown the highest increase in female enrolment in higher education between 2014-15 and 2021-22?

A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Kerala
C. Maharashtra
D. Rajasthan

4. With reference to the e-SCR (e-Supreme Court Reports) Project, consider the following statements:

(1) It aims to provide free access to judgments of the Supreme Court of India in English only.

(2) The project utilizes Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) for transcribing judgments.

(3) It is a joint initiative of the Supreme Court of India and the Ministry of Law and Justice.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above

5. The National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG), sometimes seen in the news, is associated with:

A. Providing real-time data on cases pending in High Courts and District Courts.
B. Digitizing land records across all states in India.
C. Managing the roster and allocation of cases to Supreme Court judges.
D. Facilitating online filing of First Information Reports (FIRs).

6. Which of the following initiatives is aimed at making Supreme Court judgments available in regional languages?

A. SWAAGAT
B. SUJAS
C. e-SCR
D. LIMBS

7. With reference to the Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme, consider the following statements:

(1) It aims to provide collateral-free working capital loans to street vendors.

(2) The scheme offers a graded interest subsidy for timely repayment of loans.

(3) It is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

8. The PM SVANidhi scheme has provisions for digital transactions among street vendors. What is the incentive for promoting digital payments under this scheme?

A. A higher interest subsidy on subsequent loans.
B. Cashbacks for digital transactions.
C. Access to advanced financial literacy programs.
D. Preference in availing social security benefits.

9. What is the maximum loan amount available in the third tranche under the PM SVANidhi scheme for street vendors?

A. ₹10,000
B. ₹20,000
C. ₹30,000
D. ₹50,000

10. With reference to International Cooperation in science and technology, consider the following statements:

(1) India and Sri Lanka have signed an MoU on cooperation in renewable energy.

(2) India and Brazil are part of the BRICS grouping.

(3) The ‘India-Mauritius Joint Committee on S&T Cooperation’ focuses on areas like ocean sciences and biotechnology.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

11. The BRICS grouping primarily focuses on:

A. Military alliances and defence cooperation.
B. Economic cooperation, political dialogue, and cultural exchange among its member states.
C. Establishing a common currency for international trade.
D. Promoting human rights and democratic values globally.

12. Which of the following is an example of bilateral cooperation in science and technology?

A. The activities of the International Space Station (ISS).
B. Collaboration between India and France on nuclear energy.
C. Research under the European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN).
D. Initiatives by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

13. With reference to the Annual Report on e-Governance initiatives of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), consider the following statements:

(1) MCA21 is an e-governance initiative that allows companies to file documents online.

(2) The “Central Processing Centre (CPC)” aims to expedite the processing of corporate filings.

(3) The report indicates a decrease in the number of active companies in India.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

14. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) is primarily responsible for:

A. Regulating the capital markets and stock exchanges in India.
B. Administering the Companies Act, 2013, and other corporate legislations.
C. Overseeing mergers and acquisitions of public sector undertakings.
D. Formulating policies related to foreign direct investment in India.

15. Which of the following describes the purpose of the Pre-fill facility introduced in MCA21 V3?

A. To automatically generate financial statements for companies.
B. To pre-populate certain form fields with existing data to reduce manual entry.
C. To provide legal advice to companies on compliance matters.
D. To automate the approval process for company registrations.

16. With reference to the State Finances Audit Report by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements:

(1) The report provides an assessment of the financial health of the Union Government.

(2) It examines the revenue and expenditure trends of state governments.

(3) Fiscal deficit is the difference between total expenditure and total receipts, excluding borrowings.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

17. Which of the following is a constitutional body in India responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and State Governments?

A. NITI Aayog
B. Finance Commission
C. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
D. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

18. A revenue deficit occurs when:

A. Total expenditure exceeds total revenue receipts.
B. Revenue expenditure exceeds revenue receipts.
C. Capital expenditure exceeds capital receipts.
D. Total receipts exceed total expenditure.

19. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), consider the following statements:

(1) It is a crop insurance scheme launched in 2016.

(2) The scheme is mandatory for all farmers, including non-loanee farmers.

(3) It covers yield losses due to non-preventable natural risks.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

20. Which of the following is not a stated objective of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)?

A. Providing financial support to farmers suffering crop loss/damage.
B. Stabilizing farmers’ income.
C. Encouraging farmers to adopt specific high-yielding crop varieties.
D. Ensuring flow of credit to the agriculture sector.

21. The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is implemented by:

A. State Governments
B. Private insurance companies
C. A consortium of public and private insurance companies
D. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

22. With reference to the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF), consider the following statements:

(1) It is the primary fund available with State Governments for immediate relief in case of notified disasters.

(2) The Central Government contributes 75% of the SDRF allocation for general category States.

(3) Funds from SDRF can be used for providing immediate relief to victims of cyclones, droughts, and pest attacks.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

23. The National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) is primarily used for:

A. Providing long-term rehabilitation and reconstruction efforts after a disaster.
B. Funding research and development in disaster management.
C. Meeting the expenses for immediate relief operations that exceed the SDRF corpus.
D. Training disaster response personnel at the state level.

24. Which of the following bodies is responsible for recommending the allocation of funds to the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF)?

A. NITI Aayog
B. Ministry of Home Affairs
C. Finance Commission
D. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)

25. With reference to the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, consider the following statements:

(1) It aims to provide food and nutritional security by ensuring access to adequate quantity of quality food at affordable prices.

(2) The Act covers up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized food grains.

(3) Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to maternity benefit and free meals during pregnancy and six months after child birth.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

26. Under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, what is the quantity of food grains provided per person per month to priority households?

A. 3 kg
B. 5 kg
C. 7 kg
D. 10 kg

27. The Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), as envisioned under the NFSA, aims to:

A. Provide universal access to food grains for all citizens.
B. Distribute food grains only to Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.
C. Identify and provide food grains to specific sections of the population at subsidized rates.
D. Regulate the open market prices of essential food commodities.

28. With reference to the Integrated Sample Survey (ISS) 2022-23 for Livestock Sector, consider the following statements:

(1) The survey provides estimates of major livestock products like milk, eggs, meat, and wool.

(2) It is conducted annually by the Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying.

(3) The milk production in India has shown a declining trend in recent years.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

29. India is the largest producer of which of the following livestock products globally?

A. Meat
B. Eggs
C. Milk
D. Wool

30. The per capita availability of milk in India has been increasing. This indicates:

A. A decrease in the overall milk production.
B. A faster growth rate in milk production compared to population growth.
C. A shift in dietary preferences towards plant-based alternatives.
D. A decline in the export of dairy products.

31. With reference to the Integrated Sample Survey (ISS) for the livestock sector, what is the primary purpose of collecting data on livestock products?

A. To assess the health and welfare of livestock animals.
B. To determine the price fixation for livestock products in the market.
C. To estimate the contribution of the livestock sector to the national economy and formulate policies.
D. To track the spread of animal diseases and implement control measures.

32. With reference to Indian Railways, consider the following statements:

(1) The Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFCs) aim to separate freight and passenger traffic.

(2) The Vande Bharat Express trains are indigenously designed and manufactured.

(3) Indian Railways is the largest rail network in the world.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

33. The Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Limited (DFCCIL) is responsible for:

A. Manufacturing coaches for passenger trains.
B. Constructing and operating Dedicated Freight Corridors.
C. Managing the railway police force.
D. Developing high-speed rail networks in India.

34. Which of the following initiatives of Indian Railways focuses on improving passenger amenities and safety at railway stations?

A. National Rail Plan
B. Amrit Bharat Station Scheme
C. Gati Shakti Multi-Modal Cargo Terminal Policy
D. Mission Raftaar

35. With reference to “Myanmarese Nationals” and the Free Movement Regime (FMR), consider the following statements:

(1) The FMR allows tribal communities living along the India-Myanmar border to travel up to 16 km into each other’s territory without a visa.

(2) The FMR was suspended by India in 2020 due to the COVID-19 pandemic.

(3) India has recently decided to suspend the FMR and fence the entire India-Myanmar border.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

36. The Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and Myanmar was introduced with the primary objective of:

A. Promoting cultural exchange and tourism between the two countries.
B. Facilitating cross-border trade and economic activities.
C. Easing movement for tribal communities living along the border, based on historical and ethnic ties.
D. Strengthening military cooperation and border security operations.

37. Which of the following states of India shares a border with Myanmar?

A. Assam
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Sikkim
D. Tripura

38. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), consider the following statements:

(1) It aims to provide universal access to banking facilities with at least one basic banking account for every household.

(2) Overdraft facility of up to ₹10,000 is available to eligible account holders.

(3) The scheme is primarily targeted at urban households.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

39. What is the RuPay Debit Card associated with under the PMJDY scheme?

A. A credit card for purchasing consumer goods.
B. An insurance card providing health coverage.
C. A debit card for ATM withdrawals and digital payments.
D. A loyalty card for discounts at government stores.

40. The “Bank Mitra” model, sometimes seen in the context of financial inclusion, refers to:

A. Individuals who provide financial advice to large corporations.
B. Business Correspondents who offer banking services in unbanked areas.
C. Bank employees specifically trained for digital marketing.
D. Online platforms for comparing financial products.

41. With reference to Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and its missions, consider the following statements:

(1) ISRO’s Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) successfully entered Mars orbit in its first attempt.

(2) Chandrayaan-3 successfully landed a rover on the lunar South Pole.

(3) Aditya-L1 is India’s first mission to study the Sun.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

42. What is the primary objective of Aditya-L1 mission?

A. To study the surface composition of Mars.
B. To explore the geological features of the Moon’s polar regions.
C. To observe the Sun’s outer atmosphere (corona) and solar winds.
D. To develop a new generation of communication satellites.

43. The Lagrange Point 1 (L1), where Aditya-L1 is positioned, is significant because:

A. It is the closest point to the Sun from Earth.
B. It allows for continuous observation of the Sun without occultation.
C. It is a region of intense magnetic activity on the Sun.
D. It is the ideal location for launching deep space missions.

44. With reference to the Union Budget, consider the following statements:

(1) The Budget is presented annually by the Finance Minister in the Parliament.

(2) It contains estimates of government receipts and expenditures for the upcoming financial year.

(3) The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act aims to ensure fiscal prudence.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

45. What is the significance of the Economic Survey in the context of the Union Budget?

A. It outlines the government’s long-term economic policies.
B. It provides a review of the Indian economy over the past year and insights for the future.
C. It presents the detailed revenue and expenditure statements for the current fiscal year.
D. It acts as a guide for foreign direct investment approvals.

46. Revenue expenditure in the Union Budget refers to:

A. Spending that creates assets or reduces liabilities.
B. Spending incurred for the normal functioning of government departments and provision of services.
C. Investments made in public sector enterprises.
D. Grants given to state governments for capital projects.

47. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), consider the following statements:

(1) The primary objective is to provide all-weather road connectivity to unconnected habitations in rural areas.

(2) The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.

(3) Only habitations with a population of 1000 persons and above are eligible for connectivity under PMGSY.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

48. Which of the following technologies is primarily promoted under PMGSY for sustainable road construction?

A. Carbon Fiber Composites
B. Green Technologies and Waste Materials
C. Nanotechnology in materials
D. Underground tunneling methods

49. The “Core Network” concept under PMGSY refers to:

A. A network of national highways connecting major cities.
B. The minimum road network necessary to provide basic access to all eligible habitations.
C. Roads connecting rural areas to railway stations.
D. Roads within village limits for internal connectivity.

50. With reference to the Startup India initiative, consider the following statements:

(1) It aims to foster a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in India.

(2) Startups are provided with tax exemptions and easier compliance norms.

(3) The initiative is implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

51. What is the primary role of the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme?

A. To provide loans for large-scale industrial projects.
B. To offer financial assistance to startups at the ideation or early stage.
C. To fund research and development in established companies.
D. To provide grants for infrastructure development in industrial zones.

52. A startup, to be recognized under the Startup India initiative, must be incorporated for a period not exceeding:

A. 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years

53. With reference to the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM), consider the following statements:

(1) SBM (Gramin) Phase I achieved Open Defecation Free (ODF) status across all villages in India.

(2) SBM (Urban) focuses on scientific solid waste management and liquid waste management in urban areas.

(3) ODF Plus status under SBM (Gramin) Phase II aims for sustained ODF status and solid/liquid waste management.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

54. The Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation is responsible for implementing:

A. Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban)
B. Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin)
C. National Urban Livelihoods Mission
D. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT)

55. What does “ODF Plus Model” village signify under Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) Phase II?

A. A village with 100% access to individual household toilets.
B. A village that sustains its ODF status and has systems for solid and liquid waste management.
C. A village where all households have access to piped water supply.
D. A village that has achieved universal literacy and sanitation.

56. With reference to Indian Coal Sector, consider the following statements:

(1) India is the second largest producer of coal in the world.

(2) Coal India Limited (CIL) is the single largest coal producing company in the world.

(3) The power sector accounts for the largest share of coal consumption in India.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

57. What is the significance of “First Mile Connectivity” projects in the coal sector?

A. Connecting coal mines directly to international ports.
B. Improving the transportation of coal from mining areas to loading points.
C. Developing new coal block exploration technologies.
D. Establishing coal-based power plants near mining sites.

58. The National Coal Index (NCI) is used to:

A. Measure the environmental impact of coal mining.
B. Indicate the average price of coal in the domestic market.
C. Track the production volume of coal in India.
D. Determine the quality standards for different types of coal.

59. With reference to G20 initiatives and India’s role, consider the following statements:

(1) India holds the G20 Presidency for 2023.

(2) The G20 primarily focuses on global economic and financial issues.

(3) The G20 includes both developed and developing countries.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

60. Which of the following is a key focus area of India’s G20 Presidency?

A. Universal healthcare coverage.
B. Digital Public Infrastructure.
C. Space exploration and research.
D. Military disengagement in conflict zones.

61. The G20 Troika refers to:

A. The three largest economies within the G20.
B. The current, previous, and incoming G20 Presidencies.
C. The three pillars of G20 engagement: Finance, Sherpa, and Development.
D. The group responsible for drafting the G20 Leaders’ Declaration.

62. With reference to the ‘One District One Product’ (ODOP) initiative, consider the following statements:

(1) It aims to identify and promote a unique product from each district of the country.

(2) The initiative is implemented by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries.

(3) It focuses on developing a value chain for the identified products to boost their marketability.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

63. The ‘ODOP Wall’ recently seen in the news, is associated with:

A. A physical barrier to protect unique district products.
B. An exhibition or display showcasing diverse ODOP products from across India.
C. A digital platform for online sales of ODOP products.
D. A policy framework for promoting exports of ODOP products.

64. The ‘Geographical Indication (GI) tag’ is important for products identified under the ODOP initiative because it:

A. Provides financial subsidies for their production.
B. Grants exclusive manufacturing rights to a single producer.
C. Signifies that the product has a specific geographical origin and possesses qualities due to that origin.
D. Allows for duty-free import of raw materials for the product.

65. With reference to Indian Space Policy 2023, consider the following statements:

(1) It aims to enhance the participation of the private sector in India’s space activities.

(2) ISRO will shift its focus from operational activities to research and development.

(3) New Space India Limited (NSIL) will be responsible for commercializing space technologies.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

66. What is the primary objective of Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe)?

A. To conduct space research for military applications.
B. To authorize and regulate space activities of non-governmental entities.
C. To develop new satellite launch vehicles.
D. To manage India’s international collaborations in space.

67. The term “Space Situational Awareness (SSA)”, in the context of space policy, refers to:

A. The ability to launch multiple satellites in a single mission.
B. The knowledge of the space environment, including objects in orbit and space weather.
C. The development of technologies for deep space exploration.
D. The ability to conduct interstellar travel.

68. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U), consider the following statements:

(1) It aims to provide affordable housing to all eligible urban households by 2022.

(2) The scheme offers a credit-linked subsidy component for housing loans.

(3) Beneficiaries include Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), Low Income Groups (LIG), and Middle Income Groups (MIG).

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

69. Which of the following is a vertical under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U)?

A. Housing for All in Rural Areas
B. In-situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR)
C. Smart Cities Mission
D. National Urban Livelihoods Mission

70. The “Light House Projects (LHPs)” under PMAY-U are significant because they:

A. Provide illuminated public spaces in urban areas.
B. Showcase innovative and green construction technologies for affordable housing.
C. Are model housing projects for government employees.
D. Focus on building housing in coastal regions.

71. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), consider the following statements:

(1) It aims to provide free LPG connections to women from rural and deprived households.

(2) The scheme targets households that currently use traditional cooking fuels like firewood.

(3) The beneficiaries receive financial assistance for the cost of the LPG cylinder and stove.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

72. The primary objective of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is to:

A. Promote the use of solar energy in rural households.
B. Improve the health of women and children by providing clean cooking fuel.
C. Increase the income of rural households through self-employment opportunities.
D. Provide access to electricity for all rural households.

73. Which of the following ministries is responsible for the implementation of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)?

A. Ministry of Rural Development
B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
C. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
D. Ministry of Women and Child Development

74. With reference to Indian Startups and the Unicorn Club, consider the following statements:

(1) A “Unicorn” startup is a privately held startup company valued at over $1 billion.

(2) India is home to the third-largest number of Unicorns globally.

(3) The Startup India initiative has significantly contributed to the growth of Unicorns in India.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

75. The term “Soonicorn” in the startup ecosystem refers to:

A. A startup that has failed to achieve its financial targets.
B. A startup that is close to achieving a valuation of $1 billion.
C. A startup specializing in space technology.
D. A startup that has been acquired by a larger company.

76. Which of the following factors is most indicative of a thriving startup ecosystem?

A. High government subsidies for established industries.
B. A large number of public sector enterprises.
C. Abundance of venture capital funding and incubators.
D. Strict regulations on foreign investment.