Daily PIB Quiz – 20 Aug 2025

1. The recent meeting concerning the National Institute of Ayurveda (NIA) underscored the significance of which of the following factors for the institute’s future development?

1. Globally benchmarked research

2. Modernized curricula and faculty development

3. Enhanced infrastructure and community outreach

4. Aligning with the global rise of traditional medicine systems

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 1 and 4 only

2. The establishment of the WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine in India signifies:

A. A decline in the global interest in traditional medicine systems.
B. India’s diminishing role in global health initiatives.
C. International recognition and validation of India’s traditional medicine knowledge systems.
D. A shift away from evidence-based medicine towards solely traditional practices.

3. Which of the following statements regarding the establishment of the Indian Institute of Management (IIM) in Assam are correct?

1. The establishment of the IIM is expected to improve educational infrastructure in Assam.

2. The IIM is anticipated to attract students and researchers from across India.

3. The Prime Minister of India expressed his congratulations to the people of Assam on this development.

4. The establishment of the IIM will primarily benefit the local population of Assam, without significantly impacting other regions.

A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1 only

4. The establishment of an IIM in Assam is primarily expected to contribute to which of the following?

A. Improved higher education infrastructure in the Northeast region
B. Increased employment opportunities specifically in the Assam state
C. Boosting the tourism sector in Assam
D. Attracting foreign investment in the education sector

5. The Prime Minister’s congratulatory message highlights which key aspect of the new IIM in Assam?

A. The potential for economic growth through increased skilled workforce
B. The strategic importance of Assam in the context of India’s foreign policy
C. The enhancement of educational infrastructure and attraction of students and researchers
D. The advancement of technological research and development in the region

6. Which of the following statements regarding the Agni-5 missile is/are correct?

1. Agni-5 is an intermediate-range ballistic missile.

2. The recent test-fire validated all operational and technical parameters.

3. The missile’s test launch was conducted by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only

7. The successful test-firing of the Agni-5 missile underscores which of the following aspects of India’s national security strategy?

A. Emphasis on indigenous defence capabilities
B. Credibility of minimum deterrence policy
C. Strengthening of conventional military power
D. All of the above

8. What is the primary role of the Strategic Forces Command in the context of the Agni-5 missile test?

A. Developing the missile’s technology
B. Overseeing the missile’s production
C. Conducting the test and operational deployment
D. Analyzing post-test data and recommendations

9. The establishment of the Integrated Manufacturing Cluster (IMC) at Hisar, Haryana, under the Amritsar-Kolkata Industrial Corridor (AKIC) is primarily aimed at achieving which of the following objectives?

A. Promoting agricultural development in Haryana
B. Developing a major tourist destination in North India
C. Strengthening India’s manufacturing sector and attracting foreign investment
D. Improving the infrastructure of Hisar city

10. The agreements signed for the development of the IMC Hisar signify which of the following aspects of India’s economic policy?

A. A shift away from manufacturing towards service-based economy
B. Increased reliance on foreign direct investment for infrastructure development
C. A commitment to regional development and balanced industrial growth across states
D. A focus on reducing the role of the private sector in infrastructure projects

11. Which of the following statements regarding India’s textile and apparel sector performance is/are correct?

1. Textile exports in July 2025 showed a year-on-year growth compared to July 2024.

2. Cumulative textile exports from April to July 2025 witnessed a decline compared to the same period in 2024.

3. Government initiatives like PLI for Textiles and PM MITRA Parks aim to modernize and diversify the sector.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. None of the above

12. India’s textile sector growth is attributed to various factors. Which of the following is NOT a significant contributing factor to this growth?

1. Government schemes aimed at skill development of workers.

2. Initiatives focused on technological upgradation and innovation.

3. A consistent decline in global demand for textiles.

4. Strategic diversification of export markets.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

13. The growth of India’s textile and apparel sector signifies its importance to the Indian economy. What key role(s) does this sector play?

1. Employment generation

2. Export promotion

3. Economic growth

4. Reduction of import dependence

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

14. Which of the following statements regarding the Niveshak Seva Kendras are correct?

1. They primarily aim to facilitate faster claim processing for unclaimed dividends.

2. These centers are an initiative of the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA).

3. The Kendras offer services related to KYC/nomination updates for investors.

4. Their establishment is solely the initiative of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

15. The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) was established to primarily address which of the following investor concerns?

A. Lack of awareness regarding investment schemes
B. Delayed or non-payment of matured deposits and debentures
C. High transaction costs associated with stock market investments
D. Difficulty in accessing financial markets

16. Consider the following statements about the collaboration involved in establishing the Niveshak Seva Kendras:

1. The initiative involves collaboration between the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and market intermediaries.

2. SEBI’s involvement is limited to providing technical expertise.

3. The collaboration is intended to improve investor protection and service efficiency.

(4) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

17. Special Campaign 5.0, launched by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), focuses on which key areas for improvement in government functioning?

A. Financial transparency and accountability
B. E-governance and digitalization initiatives
C. Improving infrastructure and resource allocation
D. Swachhata, record management, and pendency reduction

18. The Special Campaign, initiated in 2021, has demonstrably achieved which of the following outcomes?

A. Significant reduction in government expenditure
B. Complete digitization of all government records
C. Substantial improvement in citizen satisfaction scores
D. Release of office space, file disposal, and revenue generation from scrap

19. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the outcomes of the initiatives undertaken by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)?

1. The launch of the State Drug Regulatory Index aims to benchmark states based on their drug regulator performance.

2. A new guidance framework for Expert Committees (SECs) has been released to streamline application review processes.

3. Digital dashboards have been implemented to accelerate application processing timelines, significantly reducing delays in approvals for clinical trials and post-approval changes.

4. The CDSCO has developed biosimilar guidance to increase access to biologics in India, aligning with global standards.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

20. The reforms in India’s medical product regulatory ecosystem, as discussed, are primarily aimed at achieving which of the following objectives?

1. Enhancing patient safety and domestic manufacturing capabilities.

2. Increasing the global competitiveness of Indian medical product manufacturers.

3. Promoting transparency and accountability in the regulatory process.

4. Facilitating quicker access to affordable and safe medical products.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

21. The implementation of digital systems within the CDSCO has led to improvements in which of the following areas?

1. Tracking and prioritization of applications.

2. Creation of a harmonized national database.

3. Enhanced transparency in regulatory processes.

4. Analysis of data related to substandard quality medical products.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 3 and 4 only

22. Which of the following statements regarding the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) are correct?

1. The NSM was launched in 2015 with an initial budget of Rs. 4,500 crore and aims to achieve self-reliance in supercomputing.

2. As of a recent date, the NSM has deployed 37 supercomputers with a combined computing power exceeding 40 Petaflops, supporting thousands of researchers.

3. The NSM’s initiatives include the development of indigenous supercomputing technologies, aligning with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ vision, and a comprehensive human resource development program.

4. The mission’s impact is solely limited to large metropolitan areas, with limited reach to Tier II and III cities.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

23. The National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) has facilitated advancements in several research areas. Which of the following sectors has NOT directly benefited from the supercomputing resources provided under the NSM?

1. Climate Modeling

2. Space Exploration

3. Pharmaceutical Research

4. Disaster Management

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None of the above

24. Consider the following statements about the PARAM Rudra supercomputers:

1. They were launched by the Prime Minister and are exclusively used for defense-related research.

2. These supercomputers are built using entirely imported components, showcasing India’s reliance on foreign technology.

3. Their deployment at various institutions aims to facilitate advanced research in diverse scientific fields.

4. The PARAM Rudra’s design and manufacturing are fully indigenous.

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 only

25. Which of the following statements regarding the inaugural Khelo India Water Sports Festival (KIWSF) are correct?

1. The KIWSF includes Olympic events in rowing, canoeing, and kayaking.

2. The festival features demonstration events in water sports beyond the medal events.

3. The selection process for KIWSF participants involved qualifiers based on previous national-level competitions.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 2 and 3 only

26. The Khelo India initiative, encompassing events like the KIWSF and Khelo India Beach Games, primarily aims to:

A. Promote international sporting collaborations and attract foreign investment.
B. Focus exclusively on elite athlete training and Olympic preparation.
C. Develop grassroots sports culture and identify sporting talent.
D. Primarily boost tourism revenue in selected states.

27. Which of the following statements regarding the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) recruitment process is/are correct?

1. The UPSC releases recruitment results on a monthly basis.

2. Candidates are informed of their results individually through post.

3. All applicants who submit applications are called for an interview.

4. The UPSC considers all applications but may not recommend all candidates for the post.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 4 only

28. The Union Public Service Commission’s recruitment process involves which of the following stages?

1. Application submission

2. Interview

3. Result declaration

4. Individual notification of selection/rejection

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2, 3, and 4 only

29. A Chief Minister’s meeting with the Prime Minister can serve multiple purposes. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a primary agenda item for such a meeting?

A. Discussion of critical state-level policy issues requiring central government support
B. Seeking central funds for state-specific projects or programs
C. Negotiating the terms of a new state-level political alliance
D. Review of the implementation of centrally sponsored schemes in the state

30. The amendment to Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, as facilitated by the DPDP Act, primarily aims to:

A. Strengthen the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
B. Prioritize the right to information over the right to privacy.
C. Eliminate all exemptions under the RTI Act.
D. Harmonize the right to privacy with the right to information.

31. Consider the following statements regarding the enactment of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023:

1. The Act resulted from extensive public consultations.

2. The Act prioritizes the processing of personal data for lawful purposes over individual privacy rights.

3. The Act codifies existing judicial interpretations regarding reasonable restrictions on the right to information.

(4) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

32. Which of the following statements regarding leave provisions for Central Government employees is/are correct?

1. Female employees are entitled to 60 days of special maternity leave in case of stillbirth or neonatal death.

2. A maximum of 42 days of special casual leave is available for employees donating an organ.

3. These leave provisions are applicable to all government employees across India.

4. The provisions aim to improve the emotional well-being of mothers and encourage organ donation.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

33. The recent policy changes regarding leave for Central Government employees demonstrate which of the following?

1. The government’s commitment to employee well-being.

2. An emphasis on promoting altruistic behavior.

3. Recognition of the emotional impact of significant life events.

4. A focus on increasing organ donation rates.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

34. Special Casual Leave (SCL) of up to 42 days is granted to Central Government employees for which of the following reasons?

A. Participating in national-level sports events
B. Undergoing medical treatment for chronic illness
C. Donating an organ to save a life
D. Attending family emergencies