Daily PIB Quiz – 31 Jul 2025

1. Which of the following statements regarding the inscription of the Bhagavad Gita and Natya Shastra in UNESCO's Memory of the World Register is/are correct?

1. The inscription is a matter of national pride for India.

2. The Gyan Bharatam Mission on Manuscripts is directly related to this inscription.

3. The initiative solely focuses on preserving ancient manuscripts.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

2. The Gyan Bharatam Mission, launched in conjunction with the UNESCO inscription, primarily aims to:

(2) a) Digitize all Indian manuscripts and make them available online.

(3) b) Create a national repository for all manuscripts found in India.

(4) c) Preserve and disseminate India's manuscript knowledge to a wider audience.

(5) d) Establish a global network of scholars to study Indian manuscripts.

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

3. IGNCA's role in the UNESCO nominations and related initiatives includes:

1. Preparing nomination dossiers.

2. Serving as a capacity-building resource for other countries.

3. Proposing a National Register of Documentary Heritage.

(4) Which statement(s) is/are accurate?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding the extension of service for All India Services officers post-retirement is/are correct?

1. Such extensions are granted only in exceptional circumstances.

2. Public interest is a necessary criterion for granting such extensions.

3. The extensions are governed by the All India Services (Death Cum Retirement Benefit) Rules, 1958, or other relevant rules.

4. The Lok Sabha recently passed legislation allowing for such extensions.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

5. The power to grant post-retirement service extensions to All India Services officers rests with which of the following?

A. The President of India
B. The Union Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions
C. The respective State Governments
D. The Supreme Court of India

6. Consider the following statements about the extension of service for All India Services officers after retirement:

1. The decision to extend service is based solely on the merit of the individual officer.

2. The extension is granted only if there is no suitable replacement available within the service.

3. The extension is subject to the approval of the relevant appointing authority.

(4) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

7. The CPGRAMS portal is primarily associated with which of the following aspects of governance?

A. Environmental protection and conservation
B. Financial inclusion and banking services
C. Public grievance redressal and citizen engagement
D. Regulation of industries and commerce

8. Consider the following statements about the timeline and process of grievance redressal in India:

1. The introduction of new guidelines aims to expedite the resolution of public grievances.

2. The Lok Sabha plays a crucial role in overseeing the effectiveness of grievance redressal mechanisms.

3. The annual number of grievances redressed provides a complete and accurate measure of citizen satisfaction with government services.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

9. The government's initiatives to improve the efficiency of pension grievance redressal include all EXCEPT:

A. Thematic Adalats
B. Annual Special Campaigns
C. Privatization of pension processing
D. Capacity Building Programmes for grievance redressal officers

10. The Central Civil Services (Leave) Rules, 1972, allow Central Government employees to avail leave for various reasons. Which of the following is explicitly mentioned as a permissible reason for leave?

A. Further education or professional development
B. Medical emergencies of immediate family members
C. Taking care of elderly parents
D. Participation in social or political activities

11. Consider the following statements regarding leave entitlements for Central Government employees:

1. The total number of leave days includes Earned Leave, Half Pay Leave, Casual Leave, and Restricted Holidays.

2. The leave provisions are governed by rules established in 1972.

3. Leave for personal reasons is explicitly disallowed under the rules.

(4) Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. None of the statements are correct

12. Which of the following statements regarding the filling of vacancies in Central Government Ministries and Departments is/are correct?

1. The Pay Research Unit of the Department of Expenditure publishes annual reports on sanctioned posts and persons in position.

2. A Model Calendar has been prescribed for holding Departmental Promotion Committee (DPC) meetings for filling vacancies through promotion.

3. Ministries/Departments have been delegated the power to make appointments through deputation up to level 13A and below in the pay matrix.

4. Mission Recruitment, launched in June 2022, aims to fill vacancies in mission mode, utilizing Rozgar Melas to expedite the process.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

13. The government's initiative to address vacancies in Central Government Ministries involves which of the following approaches?

1. Streamlining the direct recruitment process by requiring Ministries to report vacancy positions to recruiting agencies in advance.

2. Implementing a Model Calendar for Departmental Promotion Committee (DPC) meetings to ensure timely promotions.

3. Utilizing Rozgar Melas to facilitate time-bound filling of vacancies across various government bodies.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 3 only

14. What is the primary source of publicly accessible consolidated data on sanctioned posts and persons-in-position in various Central Government Ministries and Departments?

A. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions
B. The Department of Expenditure's Pay Research Unit
C. The Rajya Sabha Secretariat
D. The Central Staffing Agency

15. Which of the following statements regarding the Nationwide Financial Awareness Saturation Campaign are correct?

1. The campaign aims to cover all Gram Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies to ensure that every eligible citizen benefits from flagship schemes.

2. In its first month, the campaign witnessed over 99,000 camps, with a significant number of new accounts opened and social security scheme enrollments.

3. The campaign's focus includes digital fraud awareness, facilitating access to unclaimed deposits, and establishing grievance redressal mechanisms.

4. The campaign is solely focused on enrolling citizens into the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY).

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only

16. The Nationwide Financial Awareness Saturation Campaign primarily seeks to achieve which of the following?

A. Improve the digital literacy of rural populations.
B. Increase the penetration of financial services across all segments of the population.
C. Promote financial inclusion by expanding access to banking and financial services, particularly in underserved areas.
D. Enhance the government's revenue collection through increased tax compliance.

17. Consider the following statements about the financial inclusion initiatives mentioned in the context of the Nationwide Financial Awareness Saturation Campaign:

1. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) is a life insurance scheme.

2. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is an accident insurance scheme.

3. Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a social security scheme for the unorganized sector.

(4) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. None of the above

18. Which of the following statements regarding the Mission Karmayogi and the iGOT-Karmayogi platform are correct?

1. The iGOT-Karmayogi platform provides competency-driven and role-based capacity building to government employees.

2. As of a recent date, over 1.26 crore users, including a significant number from state governments, were registered on the platform.

3. The platform offers a wide array of courses focusing solely on functional competencies for government employees.

4. The platform's training programs are integrated with all government training initiatives, such as induction, mid-career, and in-service training.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only

19. The iGOT-Karmayogi platform is primarily aimed at:

A. Improving the efficiency of government functioning through digital upskilling.
B. Providing employment opportunities to skilled individuals in the government sector.
C. Facilitating better communication between government departments and citizens.
D. Streamlining the recruitment process for government jobs.

20. Mission Karmayogi's monitoring and evaluation framework primarily focuses on:

A. Assessing the effectiveness of the iGOT-Karmayogi platform in achieving its objectives.
B. Evaluating the performance of individual government employees.
C. Monitoring the financial expenditure of the Mission Karmayogi program.
D. Measuring the satisfaction levels of citizens with government services.

21. Which of the following statements regarding Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan's career are correct?

1. He specialized in Communication and Electronic Warfare.

2. He commanded the aircraft carrier Vikramaditya.

3. He served as the Chief of Staff of the Western Naval Command.

4. He is an alumnus of the National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

22. Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan's extensive career demonstrates a progression through various key roles within the Indian Navy. Which of the following best represents the typical career path progression for a senior naval officer, as exemplified by his journey?

A. Command of smaller vessels, followed by staff roles, culminating in flag officer commands and finally, senior headquarters positions.
B. Direct appointment to flag officer commands, followed by extensive staff roles, and then senior headquarters positions.
C. Staff positions at headquarters, followed by command roles, and then concluding with advisory positions.
D. Command of aircraft carriers, then various fleet commands, directly leading to the Chief of Naval Staff position.

23. Considering Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan's academic background and his specialization, which of the following areas is LEAST likely to have significantly influenced his strategic decision-making capabilities during his career?

A. His MSc in Telecommunications from Cochin University of Science and Technology
B. His PhD in International Studies from Mumbai University
C. His MA in Defence Studies from King's College, London
D. His experience commanding missile vessels and an aircraft carrier

24. Which of the following statements regarding the Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) reforms are correct?

1. The 10-step reforms introduced in April 2022 aimed to improve the timeliness, effectiveness, and accessibility of grievance redressal.

2. These reforms led to a reduction in grievance redressal timelines from 28 days in 2019 to 16 days in 2025.

3. As of June 30, 2025, the number of pending public grievances for central ministries was below 100,000.

4. The reforms resulted in the mapping of over 100,000 Grievance Officers (GROs).

A. 1, 2, and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

25. The Comprehensive Guidelines for Effective Redressal of Public Grievances, issued in August 2024, mandated several key changes. Which of the following is NOT among the mandates of these guidelines?

A. Integration of public grievance platforms
B. Establishment of dedicated grievance cells within ministries
C. Reduction of grievance redressal timelines to 14 days
D. Strengthening of grievance escalation mechanisms

26. Considering the information provided, which of the following best describes the overall impact of the CPGRAMS reforms and subsequent guidelines on public grievance redressal in India?

A. The reforms have completely eliminated public grievances.
B. The reforms have had a minimal impact on grievance redressal.
C. The reforms have significantly improved the efficiency and timeliness of grievance redressal, although some challenges remain.
D. The reforms have led to an increase in the number of public grievances filed.

27. Which of the following statements regarding the implementation of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission's recommendations is/are correct?

1. The accepted recommendations were conveyed to relevant Ministries, Departments, State Governments, and Union Territory Administrations.

2. Implementation is an ongoing, continuous process.

3. The Prime Minister's Office (PMO) is the sole authority for overseeing the implementation of all recommendations.

4. A specific deadline was set for the complete implementation of all recommendations.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, and 4 only

28. In the context of Delhi's air quality from January to July, which of the following observations is/are accurate?

1. The average AQI from January to July 2025 showed a significant improvement compared to the same period in previous years.

2. No day in the January-July 2025 period recorded an AQI exceeding 400 ('Severe' or 'Severe+' categories).

3. The concentration of PM2.5 and PM10 pollutants during this period was the lowest since 2018, excluding the COVID-19 lockdown year.

4. The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) has ceased its efforts to improve air quality after achieving significant improvements in 2025.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

29. Which of the following statements correctly reflects Prime Minister Modi's condolences and assessment of Smt. Pramila Tai Medhe's life and work?

1. He acknowledged her significant contributions to social work and women's empowerment.

2. He described her life as a source of inspiration for future generations.

3. He highlighted her role in promoting inclusive social development.

4. He specifically mentioned her leadership in the Rashtra Sevika Samiti.

A. 1 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. None of the above

30. Smt. Pramila Tai Medhe's legacy, as highlighted by the Prime Minister, primarily emphasizes which of the following aspects?

A. National security and defense
B. Economic growth and development
C. Social reform and women's empowerment
D. Technological advancement and innovation

31. The Rashtra Sevika Samiti, with which Smt. Pramila Tai Medhe was associated, is best known for its work in which area?

A. Promoting environmental conservation
B. Advocating for political reforms
C. Working for social welfare and women's empowerment
D. Encouraging entrepreneurship and economic growth

32. Which of the following statements regarding the Centralized Pension Grievances Redress and Monitoring System (CPENGRAMS) is/are correct?

1. Over 85% of pension-related grievances received in the first half of 2025 were resolved through CPENGRAMS.

2. The average time taken to resolve grievances on the CPENGRAMS portal decreased significantly between January and July 2025.

3. A government policy mandates that all pension grievances must be resolved within 21 days.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

33. The primary objective of the 'Effective Redressal of Pension Grievances' policy circular is to:

A. Reduce the financial burden on the government caused by pension-related disputes.
B. Enhance the efficiency and timeliness of pension grievance resolution.
C. Increase the number of government employees involved in pension processing.
D. Improve public awareness about pension schemes and their benefits.

34. Which of the following statements correctly describes the recently signed MoU between the ITBPF and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT)?

1. The MoU aims to improve the biomedical research capabilities of the ITBPF.

2. A key focus area is research into human adaptability to high-altitude environments.

3. The collaboration will leverage DBT's expertise in translational research and innovation.

4. The initiative aligns with the vision of 'Viksit Bharat' by 2047.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

35. The collaboration between the ITBPF and DBT is expected to yield which of the following outcomes?

1. Development of advanced prosthetics and biomedical devices.

2. Improved biosecurity measures for paramilitary forces.

3. Enhanced food biotechnology solutions relevant to high-altitude deployments.

4. Risk stratification of personnel based on high-altitude adaptability.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 1 and 4 only

36. What is a significant contribution of the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) to the collaborative effort with the ITBPF?

A. Providing funding for the research projects only
B. Offering access to its research facilities and expertise in translational research
C. Training ITBPF personnel in basic medical procedures
D. Developing and implementing the research protocols solely

37. Which of the following statements regarding the Civil Services Examination (CSE) are correct?

1. The CSE rules are framed solely by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).

2. The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) plays a role in finalizing the CSE rules.

3. Reforms in the CSE are a static process, rarely undergoing changes.

4. The government periodically reviews and modifies the CSE to adapt to evolving governance needs and social dynamics.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. None of the above

38. The Union Minister's statement in the Rajya Sabha highlights the continuous evolution of the Civil Services Examination. Which of the following best reflects the underlying principle guiding these reforms?

A. Maintaining the status quo to ensure predictability
B. Prioritizing administrative efficiency above all else
C. Adapting the examination to meet the changing needs of governance and society
D. Focusing solely on enhancing the academic rigor of the examination

39. With respect to the Civil Services Examination (CSE), which entity is primarily responsible for conducting the examination?

A. Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)
B. Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
C. Cadre Controlling Authorities (CCAs)
D. Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)

40. Which of the following statements regarding the government's initiatives to address pension-related grievances is/are correct?

1. Pension Adalats provide an alternative forum for resolving long-pending pension grievances, reducing reliance on courts.

2. CPENGRAMS is an online platform designed for quick redressal and monitoring of pension-related complaints, accessible via various channels.

3. A policy circular mandates that ministries resolve pension grievances within 21 days, with interim replies provided for cases requiring more time.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. None

41. The Centralized Pension Grievances Redress and Monitoring System (CPENGRAMS) facilitates which of the following?

1. Direct registration of grievances by pensioners.

2. Registration of grievances by departments on behalf of complainants.

3. Real-time tracking of grievance status by complainants.

4. Direct interaction with the Pension Adalat.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, and 4 only

42. The government's approach to resolving pension grievances can be characterized as:

A. Reactive and Court-centric
B. Proactive and Citizen-centric
C. Reactive and Bureaucratic
D. Proactive and Technology-averse

43. Which of the following statements regarding the grievance redressal mechanism in India are correct?

1. The Central Public Grievance Redressal and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) received over 600,000 grievances related to Central Ministries/Departments between April 1, 2025, and July 24, 2025.

2. A significant portion of these grievances were resolved within the stipulated 30-day timeframe.

3. The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) plays a crucial role in monitoring and expediting grievance redressal.

4. Citizen feedback is solely gathered through online portals to maintain transparency.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

44. The CPGRAMS system's performance between April 1, 2025, and July 24, 2025, indicates an average grievance redressal time of 16 days. This suggests which of the following?

1. The system is highly efficient and effective in resolving public grievances.

2. There is scope for improvement in the timeliness of grievance redressal.

3. The feedback mechanism is inadequate for assessing the effectiveness of the system.

4. The system needs more integration with state-level grievance redressal mechanisms.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only

45. Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for overseeing the functioning and improvement of CPGRAMS?

1. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

2. Ministry of Home Affairs

3. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances

4. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

46. Which of the following statements regarding the Rozgar Mela are correct?

1. The Rozgar Mela was launched by the Prime Minister in October 2022.

2. The initiative aims to expedite the filling of vacant government positions.

3. The sixteenth Rozgar Mela distributed over 51,000 appointment letters across 47 locations.

4. The scheme's impact is limited to direct employment generation, without any indirect effects.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

47. The Rozgar Mela, a government employment initiative, primarily aims to:

(2) a) Improve the efficiency of government service delivery to citizens.

(3) b) Boost self-employment opportunities through skill development programs.

(4) c) Expedite the recruitment process for vacant government positions.

(5) d) Create a centralized database of job seekers for effective placement.

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

48. Consider the following statements about the impact of the Rozgar Mela:

1. It directly addresses unemployment by creating government jobs.

2. It indirectly contributes to employment generation through improved government service delivery.

3. It provides a platform for private sector recruitment.

(4) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3